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The book

Joint distributions, transformations, order statistics

Why this is asked: Uncorrelated is weaker than independent except for the joint normal. Use the Jacobian formula for transformations and the standard order-statistic densities.

In one sentence

Independence means the joint density factors, uncorrelated is strictly weaker except for jointly normal variables, and order statistics come from one observation — the maximum is below xx exactly when all of them are.

Why the exam asks it

Because "uncorrelated therefore independent" is the standard error and has a one-line counterexample, and because the bivariate normal is the exception that makes it tempting.

The idea

Joint, marginal, conditional

fX(x)=∫f(x,y) dyf_X(x)=\int f(x,y)\,dy is the marginal; fY∣X(y∣x)=f(x,y)/fX(x)f_{Y\mid X}(y\mid x)=f(x,y)/f_X(x) the conditional.

XX and YY are independent iff f(x,y)=fX(x)fY(y)f(x,y)=f_X(x)f_Y(y) — for all x,yx,y. A useful shortcut: if the support is not a rectangle, they cannot be independent, whatever the formula looks like. A density f(x,y)=2f(x,y)=2 on 0<x<y<10<x<y<1 has a triangular support, so XX and YY are dependent immediately.

Marginals do not determine the joint. Different couplings of the same marginals have different dependence structures, which is what copulas describe.

Covariance and correlation

Cov⁡(X,Y)=E[XY]−E[X]E[Y],ρ=Cov⁡σXσY∈[−1,1].\operatorname{Cov}(X,Y)=E[XY]-E[X]E[Y], \qquad \rho=\frac{\operatorname{Cov}}{\sigma_X\sigma_Y}\in[-1,1].

Independent ⇒\Rightarrow uncorrelated. The converse is false.

Y = X² with X symmetric about 0 Y is a function of X — as dependent as possible Cov(X, Y) = E[X³] − E[X]E[X²] = 0 − 0 = 0, so ρ = 0 Uncorrelated does not mean independent. Correlation sees only the linear part. The exception: jointly normal, where ρ = 0 does give independence.
Points on a parabola: correlation zero, dependence total. Correlation measures only the linear part of a relationship.

Let XX be uniform on (−1,1)(-1,1) and Y=X2Y=X^2. Then E[X]=0E[X]=0 and E[XY]=E[X3]=0E[XY]=E[X^3]=0 by symmetry, so Cov⁡=0\operatorname{Cov}=0 and ρ=0\rho=0. But YY is a function of XX — knowing XX determines YY exactly. Correlation sees only the linear part of a relationship, and there is none here.

∣ρ∣=1|\rho|=1 happens exactly when YY is an affine function of XX almost surely.

The exception: if (X,Y)(X,Y) is jointly normal, then ρ=0\rho=0 does imply independence. Note the hypothesis is joint normality — two marginally normal variables that are not jointly normal can be uncorrelated and dependent, and that distinction is examined.

Transformations

For Y=g(X)Y=g(X) with gg monotone, fY(y)=fX(g−1(y))∣ddyg−1(y)∣f_Y(y)=f_X(g^{-1}(y))\left|\frac{d}{dy}g^{-1}(y)\right|.

In several variables the factor is the absolute value of the Jacobian determinant. Two standard uses: the Box–Muller transform producing normals from uniforms, and the convolution formula fX+Y(z)=∫fX(x)fY(z−x) dxf_{X+Y}(z)=\int f_X(x)f_Y(z-x)\,dx for independent summands.

The absolute value is not decorative — a decreasing transformation gives a negative derivative and a density must be non-negative.

Order statistics

For X1,…,XnX_1,\dots,X_n iid with CDF FF, sort them as X(1)≤⋯≤X(n)X_{(1)}\le\cdots\le X_{(n)}.

  • FX(n)(x)=F(x)nF_{X_{(n)}}(x) = F(x)^n — the maximum is below xx exactly when all are.
  • FX(1)(x)=1−(1−F(x))nF_{X_{(1)}}(x) = 1-(1-F(x))^n — the minimum exceeds xx when all do.
  • In general fX(k)(x)=n!(k−1)!(n−k)!F(x)k−1(1−F(x))n−kf(x)f_{X_{(k)}}(x) = \dfrac{n!}{(k-1)!(n-k)!}F(x)^{k-1}(1-F(x))^{n-k}f(x).

For uniforms on (0,1)(0,1), X(k)∼Beta(k,n−k+1)X_{(k)}\sim\text{Beta}(k, n-k+1) with mean kn+1\frac{k}{n+1}. So the maximum of three has mean 3/43/4 and the minimum 1/41/4 — the order statistics divide the interval into n+1n+1 equal expected gaps, which is worth remembering as a picture.

Where intuition breaks

"Uncorrelated implies independent." Y=X2Y=X^2 with XX symmetric. Correlation is a linear measure.

"Jointly normal is the same as both being normal." Two normal marginals can have a non-normal joint distribution, and then ρ=0\rho=0 does not give independence. Joint normality is the hypothesis.

"The marginals determine the joint distribution." They do not. Many joints share the same marginals.

"Independence can be checked from the formula alone." Check the support first. A non-rectangular support settles it without any algebra.

"The Jacobian factor is the derivative." Its absolute value, and in several variables the absolute determinant.

"The maximum of nn uniforms has mean 1/21/2." n/(n+1)n/(n+1). It drifts to 11, as it must.

"Order statistics are independent." They are strongly dependent — they are sorted. X(1)≤X(2)X_{(1)}\le X_{(2)} always.

The exam's angle

  1. Check the support before computing anything — a non-rectangular region rules out independence in one line.
  2. For uncorrelated-but-dependent, reach for a symmetric XX with Y=X2Y=X^2.
  3. If the question says jointly normal, ρ=0\rho=0 gives independence — and if it says only that each is normal, it does not.
  4. For order statistics, write the CDF first. Maximum and minimum come straight from "all of them", and the general density follows from the multinomial count.
  5. Remember E[X(k)]=k/(n+1)E[X_{(k)}]=k/(n+1) for uniforms, which answers many questions directly.

The night before

  • Independent   ⟺  \iff the joint factors everywhere; a non-rectangular support forbids it.
  • Independent ⇒\Rightarrow uncorrelated; converse false — Y=X2Y=X^2 with XX symmetric.
  • ρ=0\rho=0 gives independence only for jointly normal variables, not for merely normal marginals.
  • ∣ρ∣=1|\rho|=1 iff YY is affine in XX almost surely.
  • Transformations: multiply by the absolute Jacobian determinant.
  • Fmax⁡=FnF_{\max}=F^n, Fmin⁡=1−(1−F)nF_{\min}=1-(1-F)^n; fX(k)∝Fk−1(1−F)n−kff_{X_{(k)}}\propto F^{k-1}(1-F)^{n-k}f.
  • Uniform order statistics: X(k)∼Beta(k,n−k+1)X_{(k)}\sim\text{Beta}(k,n-k+1), mean k/(n+1)k/(n+1).

See it move

Order statistics from first principlesinteractive

This visual is part of Trap Analysis

Derive the max, the min and the k-th — with the dependence that catches people out.

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The trap here

“If X and Y are each normal and uncorrelated then they are independent” — false

X ~ N(0,1),ε=±1N(0,1), \varepsilon = \pm1 with probability ½ independent of X,Y=εXX, Y = \varepsilon{}X

Y is N(0,1), Cov(X,Y) = 0, but |X| = |Y| always. The pair is not jointly normal.

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