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Counterexample

Is this true?

In every integral domain, irreducible implies prime

No — it is false.

The counterexample

2 in Z[√−5]\mathbb{Z}[\surd-5]

Why it fails

2 is irreducible (no element of norm 2) but divides (1+√−5)(1−√−5)=6(1+\surd-5)(1-\surd-5) = 6 without dividing either factor.

Keep practicing

Finite-dimensional intuition

Something true in ℝⁿ, or in a nice space, assumed in general.

Go deeper· Explained in full in The ring hierarchy and where each inclusion is strict· Asked in CSIR NET December 2024· From Rings and Fields › Euclidean, PID, UFD hierarchy

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