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Counterexample

Is this true?

The MLE is unbiased

No — it is false.

The counterexample

σ\sigmâ2=(1/n)∑(Xi−Xˉ)2^{2} = (1/n)\sum(X_{i} - {\bar{X}})^{2} for N(μ,σ2)N(\mu, \sigma^{2}), or X(n)X_{(n)} for Uniform(0,θ)(0,\theta)

Why it fails

Both underestimate systematically; E[X(n)]=nθ/(n+1)E[X_{(n)}] = n\theta/(n+1).

Keep practicing

Boundary and endpoint

The statement turns at the edge of the interval, the domain, or the parameter range.

Go deeper· Explained in full in Maximum likelihood and the method of moments· Asked in CSIR NET December 2025· From Estimation › MLE and method of moments

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