NETMaths

Is this true?

f′(z) ≠ 0 everywhere implies f is injective

No — it is false.

The counterexample

f(z) = eᶻ on

f′ = eᶻ never vanishes, yet . Non-vanishing derivative gives only local injectivity.

The kind of mistake this is

Execution slip

The idea was right. The computation was not.

Drill statements like this

Others that fail the same way

From Zeros and MappingsArgument principle, Rouché's theorem, open mapping

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