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The book

Inverse and implicit function theorems, extrema

Why this is asked: Both theorems need a non-vanishing Jacobian (∂F/∂y ≠ 0 for implicit). Where it vanishes, anything can happen — that is exactly what the questions probe.

In one sentence

Both theorems are local, both need a derivative that is continuous and invertible, and nearly every wrong option is produced by upgrading "local" to "global" or by forgetting which of the two variables the hypothesis is about.

Why the exam asks it

Because these are the first theorems where the word "local" carries real weight, and it is a word students read past. A map can have an invertible derivative at every single point of the plane and still fail to be injective — that fact is counterintuitive, has a two-line counterexample, and is therefore examined repeatedly.

The idea

The inverse function theorem

Let f:Rn→Rnf : \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n be C1C^1 near aa, with Df(a)Df(a) invertible. Then there are open sets U∋aU \ni a and V∋f(a)V \ni f(a) such that f:U→Vf : U \to V is a bijection with C1C^1 inverse, and D(f−1)(f(a))=[Df(a)]−1D(f^{-1})(f(a)) = [Df(a)]^{-1}.

Three hypotheses, each examined.

C1C^1, not merely differentiable. In one dimension, f(x)=x+2x2sin⁡(1/x)f(x) = x + 2x^2\sin(1/x) with f(0)=0f(0) = 0 has

f′(x)=1+4xsin⁡(1/x)−2cos⁡(1/x)(x≠0),f′(0)=1.f'(x) = 1 + 4x\sin(1/x) - 2\cos(1/x) \quad (x \ne 0), \qquad f'(0) = 1.

So the derivative at the origin exists, equals 11, and is as invertible as a number can be. But whenever cos⁡(1/x)=1\cos(1/x) = 1 — which happens at x=1/(2πn)x = 1/(2\pi n), arbitrarily close to 00 — the derivative is 1+0−2=−1<01 + 0 - 2 = -1 < 0. The function decreases on infinitely many intervals piling up at the origin, so it is injective on no neighbourhood of 00.

y = x, the tangent at 0 f′(0) = 1, and yet f turns back on itself infinitely often near 0
f(x) = x + 2x² sin(1/x) with f(0) = 0. The derivative at the origin is 1, and the graph still doubles back infinitely often on every interval around 0 — because f′ is not continuous there.

The missing hypothesis is continuity of f′f'. This is the cleanest demonstration that "C1C^1" in the statement is load-bearing rather than decorative.

Invertible derivative, not merely nonzero somewhere. In nn dimensions "invertible" means det⁡Df(a)≠0\det Df(a) \ne 0, and it is needed at the point in question.

Local, and only local. Take

f(x,y)=(excos⁡y,  exsin⁡y).f(x,y) = (e^x\cos y,\; e^x \sin y).

Its Jacobian determinant is

∣excos⁡y−exsin⁡yexsin⁡yexcos⁡y∣=e2x(cos⁡2y+sin⁡2y)=e2x,\begin{vmatrix} e^x\cos y & -e^x\sin y \\ e^x \sin y & e^x\cos y\end{vmatrix} = e^{2x}(\cos^2 y + \sin^2 y) = e^{2x},

which is never zero. So every point has a neighbourhood on which ff is invertible. And yet ff is 2π2\pi-periodic in yy, so f(x,y)=f(x,y+2π)f(x, y) = f(x, y + 2\pi) and ff is nowhere near injective on the plane. The theorem promised a neighbourhood; it never promised the domain.

The implicit function theorem

Let F(x,y)F(x,y) be C1C^1 near (a,b)(a,b) with F(a,b)=0F(a,b) = 0 and Fy(a,b)≠0F_y(a,b) \ne 0. Then near (a,b)(a,b) the equation F=0F = 0 defines yy uniquely as a C1C^1 function of xx, and g′(a)=−Fx(a,b)/Fy(a,b)g'(a) = -F_x(a,b)/F_y(a,b).

The hypothesis is on the partial with respect to the variable you are solving for. Everything turns on that.

at (0,1): F_y = 2y = 2 ≠ 0 a graph y = g(x) sits here at (1,0): F_y = 0 no y = g(x) here — two branches, or none but F_x = 2 ≠ 0, so x = h(y) does exist x² + y² = 1. The theorem never fails on the set — only on the variable you tried to solve for.
The implicit function theorem is a statement about a variable, not about a set. On the circle, y fails to be a function of x at (1,0) — and x is a perfectly good function of y there.

On the unit circle F(x,y)=x2+y2−1F(x,y) = x^2 + y^2 - 1: at (0,1)(0,1) we have Fy=2≠0F_y = 2 \ne 0, and indeed y=1−x2y = \sqrt{1-x^2} nearby. At (1,0)(1,0) we have Fy=0F_y = 0, and yy is genuinely not a function of xx there — just to the left of x=1x = 1 there are two values of yy, and to the right there are none. But Fx=2≠0F_x = 2 \ne 0 at that point, so x=1−y2x = \sqrt{1 - y^2} is a perfectly good function of yy. Nothing is singular about the circle at (1,0)(1,0); only the choice of which variable to solve for is bad.

The derivative formula is worth deriving rather than memorising: differentiate F(x,g(x))=0F(x, g(x)) = 0 by the chain rule to get Fx+Fyg′=0F_x + F_y g' = 0.

Extrema

At an interior local extremum of a differentiable ff, the gradient vanishes. The converse fails, as always, and the second-order test is:

  • det⁡H>0\det H > 0 and fxx>0f_{xx} > 0: local minimum.
  • det⁡H>0\det H > 0 and fxx<0f_{xx} < 0: local maximum.
  • det⁡H<0\det H < 0: saddle.
  • det⁡H=0\det H = 0: the test says nothing, and the paper likes this case.

Two facts from one variable that do not survive the move to two:

A unique critical point that is a local minimum need not be a global minimum. In one variable, on an interval, it is. In two,

f(x,y)=x2+y2(1+x)3f(x,y) = x^2 + y^2(1+x)^3

has fy=2y(1+x)3f_y = 2y(1+x)^3, which vanishes only when y=0y = 0 or x=−1x = -1; on x=−1x = -1, fx=−2≠0f_x = -2 \ne 0; so the only critical point is the origin, and there ff has a local minimum. Yet along the line x=−2x = -2,

f(−2,y)=4−y2⟶−∞.f(-2, y) = 4 - y^2 \longrightarrow -\infty .

There is no global minimum at all. The single critical point is a local minimum and the function is unbounded below.

Existence of extrema needs compactness. A continuous function on a closed bounded set attains its bounds; on an unbounded or open set it need not. For constrained problems, Lagrange multipliers find candidates — they do not prove a maximum exists, and when the constraint set is not compact you must argue existence separately.

Lagrange multipliers

To extremise ff subject to g=0g = 0: solve ∇f=λ∇g\nabla f = \lambda \nabla g together with g=0g = 0. The hypothesis usually skipped is that ∇g≠0\nabla g \ne 0 at the point — where the constraint set has a singular point, the method can miss the extremum entirely.

Where intuition breaks

"det⁡Df≠0\det Df \ne 0 everywhere, so ff is a bijection." (excos⁡y,exsin⁡y)(e^x\cos y, e^x\sin y). Tempting because in one variable a nonvanishing derivative on an interval does give global injectivity — via the intermediate value theorem, which needs the domain to be connected in a way R2\mathbb{R}^2 subverts. The theorem is local; the word is in the name of the conclusion, not the hypothesis.

"f′(a)≠0f'(a) \ne 0, so ff is injective near aa." x+2x2sin⁡(1/x)x + 2x^2\sin(1/x). A hypothesis dropped: the theorem asks for C1C^1, and this ff is differentiable everywhere with a derivative that is not continuous at 00.

"F(a,b)=0F(a,b) = 0 and ∇F(a,b)≠0\nabla F(a,b) \ne 0, so yy is a function of xx near (a,b)(a,b)." The circle at (1,0)(1,0): the gradient is (2,0)≠0(2,0) \ne 0, and yy is still not a function of xx. The hypothesis is Fy≠0F_y \ne 0 specifically. A nonzero gradient guarantees some variable can be solved for — not the one you wanted.

"The only critical point is a local minimum, so it is the global minimum." x2+y2(1+x)3x^2 + y^2(1+x)^3. True in one variable on an interval, false in two, and set precisely because the one-variable instinct is strong.

"det⁡H=0\det H = 0, so the point is a saddle", or "so the test is inconclusive, therefore it is neither a max nor a min." Neither follows. f=x4+y4f = x^4 + y^4 has det⁡H=0\det H = 0 at the origin and a strict global minimum there; f=x4−y4f = x^4 - y^4 has det⁡H=0\det H = 0 and a saddle. Inconclusive means inconclusive — go back to the function.

"A continuous function on a closed set attains its maximum." Closed is not enough; f(x)=xf(x) = x on [0,∞)[0,\infty). Closed and bounded, in Rn\mathbb{R}^n.

"Lagrange gives the maximum." It gives the stationary candidates. Compare their values, and check that a maximum exists at all — on a non-compact constraint set it may not.

The exam's angle

  1. Read "local" and believe it. If an option says globally invertible, globally injective, or a global extremum, treat it as false until proved otherwise; that upgrade is the single most common way these questions are made wrong.
  2. Check C1C^1, not just differentiability. If the question hands you a function with sin⁡(1/x)\sin(1/x) in it, this is the point being tested.
  3. For implicit functions, name the variable. Compute the partial with respect to the variable being solved for, and only that one.
  4. For extrema: gradient zero, then Hessian, then — if det⁡H=0\det H = 0 — go back to the function. Try restricting to lines through the point, or spot a perfect square.
  5. Before answering that a maximum exists, check compactness. Closed and bounded, or an explicit argument.

The night before

  • Inverse function theorem: C1C^1 and det⁡Df(a)≠0\det Df(a) \ne 0 ⇒\Rightarrow locally a C1C^1-diffeomorphism. D(f−1)=[Df]−1D(f^{-1}) = [Df]^{-1}.
  • (excos⁡y,exsin⁡y)(e^x\cos y, e^x\sin y): Jacobian e2x≠0e^{2x} \ne 0 everywhere, not injective. Local ≠\ne global.
  • x+2x2sin⁡(1/x)x + 2x^2\sin(1/x): f′(0)=1f'(0) = 1, injective on no neighbourhood of 00. C1C^1 is needed.
  • Implicit function theorem: hypothesis is Fy≠0F_y \ne 0 when solving for yy. On the circle at (1,0)(1,0), yy fails and xx succeeds. g′=−Fx/Fyg' = -F_x/F_y.
  • Hessian: det⁡H>0\det H > 0 with fxx>0f_{xx} > 0 min, fxx<0f_{xx} < 0 max; det⁡H<0\det H < 0 saddle; det⁡H=0\det H = 0 tells you nothing (x4+y4x^4 + y^4 against x4−y4x^4 - y^4).
  • x2+y2(1+x)3x^2 + y^2(1+x)^3: one critical point, a local min, unbounded below.
  • Extrema exist on compact sets. Lagrange finds candidates, not existence.

See it move

Implicit function theorem: what to differentiate, and when it says nothinginteractive

This visual is part of Trap Analysis

A worked implicit derivative, plus the point where the hypothesis fails and the curve really does misbehave.

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The trap here

“AC1A C^{1} map with everywhere non-zero Jacobian is injective” — false

f(x,y) = (eˣ cos y, eˣ sin y) on R2\mathbb{R}^{2}

The Jacobian determinant is e2xe^{2x} ≠ 0, but f(x,y)=f(x,y+2π)f(x, y) = f(x, y + 2\pi). Invertibility is only local.

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