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The book

Power series and analyticity

Why this is asked: Holomorphic ⇔ analytic ⇔ locally a convergent power series — an equivalence with no real-analysis analogue. Use the identity theorem to force f ≡ g from agreement on a set with a limit point inside the domain.

In one sentence

Holomorphic and analytic are the same thing in one complex variable, the radius of convergence is the distance to the nearest singularity, and the identity theorem makes holomorphic functions so rigid that agreeing on a small set forces agreeing everywhere.

Why the exam asks it

Because the equivalence of "differentiable once" and "equal to its power series" is the single largest difference between real and complex analysis, and because the identity theorem's hypothesis — an accumulation point inside the domain — is precisely the sort of qualifier that gets dropped in an option.

The idea

A power series ∑an(z−z0)n\sum a_n (z - z_0)^n has a radius of convergence RR given by

1R=lim sup⁡n∣an∣1/n(Cauchy–Hadamard),\frac1R = \limsup_n |a_n|^{1/n} \qquad \text{(Cauchy–Hadamard)},

converging absolutely for ∣z−z0∣<R|z - z_0| < R, diverging for ∣z−z0∣>R|z-z_0| > R, and saying nothing about ∣z−z0∣=R|z - z_0| = R. Inside the disc it is holomorphic, and may be differentiated and integrated term by term, with the same radius each time.

The equivalence

ff holomorphic on an open set   ⟺  \iff ff is analytic there, that is, locally the sum of a convergent power series.

One direction is easy; the other is Cauchy's theory, and it is the reason complex analysis behaves so differently. In real analysis these are genuinely different classes: e−1/x2e^{-1/x^2} is smooth with every derivative zero at the origin, so its Taylor series is 00 and does not represent it. There is no complex counterpart. Any option asserting a complex smooth-but-not-analytic function is false.

The radius is a distance

For ff holomorphic on a domain, the Taylor series at z0z_0 has radius exactly the distance from z0z_0 to the nearest point where ff fails to be holomorphic.

on ℝ: perfectly well behaved and yet the series diverges past |x| = 1 with nothing on the line to explain it in ℂ: the reason is visible i −i radius = distance to the nearest singularity = 1
1/(1+x²) is smooth and bounded on the whole real line, and its Taylor series at 0 still diverges past |x| = 1. The reason is invisible from the line and obvious in the plane.

This resolves the classic puzzle. On R\mathbb{R}, 11+x2\frac{1}{1+x^2} is smooth, bounded, positive everywhere, and its Maclaurin series ∑(−1)nx2n\sum (-1)^n x^{2n} diverges for ∣x∣>1|x| > 1. Nothing on the real line explains the number 11. In C\mathbb{C} the function is 11+z2\frac{1}{1+z^2}, singular at ±i\pm i, and ∣±i∣=1|{\pm i}| = 1. The obstruction was never on the line.

The same idea reads off radii without computing coefficients: the radius of the series for 1z−3\frac{1}{z-3} about 00 is 33; about 11 it is 22. And eze^z, sin⁡z\sin z, cos⁡z\cos z are entire, so their series have infinite radius.

The identity theorem

Let f,gf, g be holomorphic on a connected open set DD. If {z:f(z)=g(z)}\{z : f(z) = g(z)\} has an accumulation point in DD, then f≡gf \equiv g on DD.

Equivalently: the zeros of a nonzero holomorphic function on a connected domain are isolated.

Both qualifiers are load-bearing.

Connected. On a disconnected domain the theorem applies componentwise, so ff can be 00 on one component and 11 on another.

Accumulation point in DD. Take f(z)=sin⁡(1/z)f(z) = \sin(1/z) on C∖{0}\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}. Its zeros are 1/(nπ)1/(n\pi), infinitely many, accumulating at 00 — which is not in the domain. So ff is not identically zero, and nothing is violated. Contrast sin⁡(1/z)\sin(1/z) with any function holomorphic at 00: there the accumulation point would be inside and the function would have to vanish identically.

A frequent application: two holomorphic functions agreeing on a segment of the real line, or on a sequence converging to an interior point, agree everywhere on a connected domain. That is how identities like sin⁡2+cos⁡2=1\sin^2 + \cos^2 = 1 transfer from R\mathbb{R} to C\mathbb{C} for free.

Zeros and order

If ff is holomorphic and not identically zero near z0z_0 with f(z0)=0f(z_0) = 0, then f(z)=(z−z0)mg(z)f(z) = (z - z_0)^m g(z) with g(z0)≠0g(z_0) \ne 0 and m≥1m \ge 1 finite — the order of the zero. The finiteness of mm is exactly the statement that zeros are isolated.

Where intuition breaks

"Smooth but not analytic." No such complex function. In the real case e−1/x2e^{-1/x^2} is the standard example, and the instinct carries over wrongly.

"11+x2\frac{1}{1+x^2} has no singularity on R\mathbb{R}, so its series should converge everywhere." Radius 11, forced by ±i\pm i. The real line is a slice of the real situation, not the whole of it.

"ff vanishes on an infinite set, so f≡0f \equiv 0." sin⁡(1/z)\sin(1/z) on the punctured plane. The set must have an accumulation point in the domain. Infinitely many zeros is not enough.

"f=gf = g at 1/n1/n for every nn, so f=gf = g." True if f,gf, g are holomorphic at 00 — the accumulation point is then in the domain. On C∖{0}\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}, false.

"The series converges on its circle of convergence." Cauchy–Hadamard says nothing about the boundary. ∑zn\sum z^n diverges everywhere on ∣z∣=1|z| = 1; ∑zn/n2\sum z^n/n^2 converges everywhere on it; ∑zn/n\sum z^n/n converges at every boundary point except z=1z = 1. All three have radius 11.

"Differentiating a power series shrinks the radius." The radius is unchanged under term-by-term differentiation and integration.

"A holomorphic function with infinitely many zeros in a disc is zero." Only if the zeros accumulate inside the domain — in a compact subset they must, so on a closed disc inside the domain this is true. The distinction is whether the accumulation point is reachable.

The exam's angle

  1. To find a radius, locate the singularities and measure. Almost never compute lim sup⁡∣an∣1/n\limsup|a_n|^{1/n} — find the nearest pole to the centre.
  2. For identity-theorem options, ask where the accumulation point is. Inside the domain, the conclusion holds; on the boundary or at a puncture, it does not.
  3. Watch for "connected". A disconnected domain breaks every rigidity statement in this topic.
  4. Boundary behaviour is a separate question from radius, and needs a real-series test at that point.
  5. If an option describes a complex function that is smooth and not analytic, it is false — no further work needed.

The night before

  • Holomorphic   ⟺  \iff analytic. No complex e−1/x2e^{-1/x^2}.
  • Cauchy–Hadamard: 1/R=lim sup⁡∣an∣1/n1/R = \limsup |a_n|^{1/n}. Nothing about the boundary.
  • Radius == distance from the centre to the nearest singularity. 11+z2\frac1{1+z^2} about 00 has radius 11 because of ±i\pm i.
  • Term-by-term differentiation and integration preserve the radius.
  • Identity theorem: agreement on a set with an accumulation point in a connected domain forces agreement everywhere.
  • Zeros of a nonzero holomorphic function are isolated and of finite order.
  • sin⁡(1/z)\sin(1/z) on C∖{0}\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}: infinitely many zeros, accumulating at the puncture, not identically zero.
  • Boundary cases at ∣z∣=1|z|=1: ∑zn\sum z^n diverges everywhere, ∑zn/n2\sum z^n/n^2 converges everywhere, ∑zn/n\sum z^n/n converges except at z=1z=1.

See it move

Why the radius of convergence is set by the nearest singularityinteractive

This visual is part of Trap Analysis

A function smooth on all of ℝ whose series stops at |x| = 1 — explained by a pole you cannot see on the real line.

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The trap here

“Zeros of a non-constant holomorphic function cannot accumulate” — false

sin(1/z) on C\mathbb{C}∖{0}

Zeros 1/(nπ)1/(n\pi) accumulate at 0, which lies outside the domain. Inside the domain zeros are always isolated.

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