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Counterexample

Is this true?

Convergence in probability implies almost sure convergence

No — it is false.

The counterexample

The typewriter sequence on [0,1]

Why it fails

P(Xn≠0)→0P(X_{n} \ne 0) \to 0 but every ω\omega is hit infinitely often, so there is no a.s. limit.

Go deeper· Explained in full in Modes of convergence and the limit theorems· Asked in CSIR NET December 2025· From Limit Theorems and Markov Chains › Modes of convergence, WLLN, SLLN, CLT

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