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Counterexample

Is this true?

Equivalent matrices are similar

No — it is false.

The counterexample

A=I2A = I_{2} and B=2I2B = 2I_{2}

Why it fails

Both are invertible, so each is P·(the other)·Q for suitable invertible P, Q — every invertible n×n matrix is equivalent to every other, because equivalence sees nothing finer than rank. But A has eigenvalue 1 and B has eigenvalue 2, and similarity preserves eigenvalues. Equivalence allows an independent change of basis in the domain and the codomain; similarity forces the same basis on both sides.

Go deeper· Explained in full in Linear transformations, matrices and similarity· Asked in CSIR NET June 2025· From Vector Spaces and Linear Maps › Linear transformations, matrix representation, change of basis

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