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Counterexample

Is this true?

Continuous on a bounded interval ⇒ bounded

No — it is false.

The counterexample

f(x) = 1/x on (0,1)

Why it fails

Needs a compact (closed) domain.

Go deeper· Explained in full in Continuity vs uniform continuity vs Lipschitz· Asked in CSIR NET December 2025· From Continuity and Differentiation › Continuity, uniform continuity, Lipschitz

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